A 65-year-old Client Who Has Been On Long-term Corticosteroid Therapy Is Admitted To The Hospital And (2024)

Medicine College


Answer 1

Thinning of the skin might prove to be an adverse effect of corticosteroid which may negatively affect the procedure of IV insertion. Due to the skin's increased fragility and susceptibility to bruising because of the client's diminishing capillaries, IV insertion may be more challenging.

What are corticosteroids?

Steroids, also referred to as corticosteroids, are an anti-inflammatory drug. They are recommended for a variety of ailments. They are synthetic versions of hormones that the adrenal glands typically make.

The major purposes of corticosteroids are immune system suppression and inflammation reduction. Asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) including Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis, are among the ailments they are used to treat.

What are the side effects of long term corticosteroid therapy?

Corticosteroids cause atrophic changes in the skin that can result in purpura, red striae, and skin thinning and fragility. When medication is stopped, skin thinning and purpura are typically reversible, but striae are permanent.

What is IV insertion?

A peripheral vein is reached by inserting an indwelling single-lumen plastic conduit across the skin. This procedure is known as peripheral line placement or peripheral intravenous (IV) cannulation.

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Related Questions

a client diagnosed with arthritis had a recent infection. which intervention is necessary to determine if the client has bacterial arthritis?


client diagnosed with arthritis had a recent infection, intervention necessary to determine if the client has bacterial arthritis is positive culture of synovial fluid

what is culture of synovial fluid?

Synovial fluid analysis and culture: A synovial fluid analysis involves a visual inspection and culture of fluid obtained by aspiration from a joint (elbow, knee, ankle, etc.); the color and turbidity are noted, the presence of blood cells is examined under a microscope, and growth of infectious organisms is determined by culture on special media.

arthritis is the long-lasting autoimmune disorder which affects the chronic inflammation of joints and other body parts. It is caused when the immune system of individuals attacks their own cartilage and joint lining capsule – a tough membrane that encloses all the joint parts

Symptoms vary depending on the type of arthritis. The most common symptoms in the initial stages are:

Joint pain- knee or hip pain


Redness in the joints

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sometimes the immune system overreacts from exposure to a normally harmless substance such as cat hair. subsequent exposure to this allergen elicits a massive inflammatory response. because the chemical histamine is the cause of this inflammation, what cell type is most likely behind the problem?


To protect your body from allergens, infections, and parasites, basophils, a type of white blood cell, collaborate closely with your immune system.

What is basophils?White blood cells called basophils belong to this category. Basophils fight viruses, bacteria, and fungi, just like the majority of other types of white blood cells. Since they are granulocyte cells, they discharge granules of enzymes to fight off dangerous bacteria and germs. Your white blood cell count should have a basophil count of between.5% and 1%. In healthy adults, this is equivalent to 0 to 300 basophils per microliter of blood.Basophilia is the medical term for an unusually high basophil count. basophilia could indicate an infection or a catastrophic illness like leukemia or an autoimmune disorder.Infections, allergies, disorders, and conditions marked by persistent inflammation are among the most frequent causes of basophilia.

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a client who is recovering from a brain attack (stroke) has residual dysphagia. which measure does the nurse plan to implement at mealtimes?


A client who is recovering from a brain attack (stroke) has residual dysphagia. The nurse can plan to implement at mealtimes by alternating liquids with solids.

What are solids?

Solid is one of the four fundamental states of matter. The molecules in a solid are closely packed together and contain the least amount of kinetic energy. A solid is characterized by structural rigidity and resistance to a force applied to the surface.Chemical symbol of solid is (s).

What is kinetic energy?

Kinetic energy is a form of energy that an object or a particle has by reason of its motion. If work, which transfers energy, is done on an object by applying a net force, the object speeds up and thereby gains kinetic energy.

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which complications are associate dwith hypertension? hypoglycemia, angina pectoris, congestive heart failure cardiovascular muscle atrophy decreased


Complications that are associated with hypertension are congestive heart failure.

Hypertension arises when the body's blood pressure exceeds what is deemed to be expected. Your heart, lungs, and general health may suffer if your hypertension is unchecked.

Too high blood pressure may eventually cause cardiovascular system damage. High blood pressure may also have an effect on other body organs and structures that get blood supply. This might lead to problems and supplementary ailments that propagate the disease.

According to the American Heart Association (AHA), the bulk of harm brought on by hypertension occurs over time or as a result of undiagnosed or untreated hypertension.

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a client with metastatic brain cancer is admitted to the oncology floor. what action will the admitting nurse take regarding an advanced directive for this client?


Describe the option to sign an advance directive to the client or legal guardian will be the right action for a client with metastatic brain cancer is admitted to the oncology floor.

An advance directive may be signed by any customer. The client would be made aware of that right by the admitting nurse. If the patient is incapable and no health care power of attorney has been designated, the facility's ethical committee may decide on a course of treatment. Health care professionals should respect the client's individual rights as part of their professional responsibilities, even though facility staff are not legally compelled to respect someone's moral rights. The nurse would not suggest this, even though a client could deny medical care through an advanced directive.

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when reviewing the work of other researchers, you should be suspicious if a source: group of answer choices duplicates the work of another researcher and produces the same findings focuses primarily on quantitative data rather than qualitative data touts an unusual remedy for a chronic or incurable disease addresses both immediate and long-term effects of a medical procedure


When reviewing the work of other researchers, you should be suspicious if a source touts an unusual remedy for a chronic or incurable disease.

What is chronic disease?A general definition of a chronic disease is a condition that lasts for a year or longer, necessitates continuous medical care, restricts daily activities, or both. The main causes of death and disability in the US are chronic diseases like diabetes, cancer, and heart disease.Despite being widespread and expensive, many chronic diseases can be avoided. You have the power to alter your lifestyle, which is linked to many chronic conditions. The main causes of death and disability in the US are chronic diseases like diabetes, cancer, and heart disease.

When reviewing the work of other researchers, you should be suspicious if a source: touts an unusual remedy for a chronic or incurable disease.

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which medication does the nurse recall that helps prevent seizures and delirium in a patient who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal


Benzodiazepines, such as lorazepam (Ativan), diazepam (Valium), or chlordiazepoxide (Librium) helps prevent seizures and delirium in a patient who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal.

Detoxing from alcohol is necessary to recover from alcohol addiction.

withdrawal symptoms are noticed when the alcohol user tries to quit alcohol.

As the withdrawal symptoms may have worse scenarios, doctors may prescribe certain medications to alleviate discomfort, stop the progression or worsening of symptom.

withdrawal symptoms include-

Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal may include

1. seizures

2. insomnia

3. agitation and anxiety

4. mood swings

5. fatigue

6. nausea and vomiting

7. increased heart rate and high BP

8. hand tremor and excess sweating

benzodiazepines are a class of sedative medications, and their use may result in a lower chance of recurrent withdrawal or seizures and hence approved by FDA and also doctors.

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the nurse is preparing to administer total enteral nutrition (ten) formula bolus to a client through their nasogastric (ng) tube that is connected to suction. in order to administer the feeding, which action should the nurse take first?


The nurse is preparing to administer total enteral nutrition (ten) formula bolus to a client through their nasogastric (ng) tube that is connected to suction Prevent aspiration.

A nasogastric (NG) tube is a thin, tender tube that goes in via the nose, down the throat, and into the stomach. they're used to feed components to a child who cannot get nutrients with the aid of the mouth. from time to time, kids get medication thru the tube. NG tubes are used for brief intervals of time, generally some weeks to months.

A nasogastric tube (NG tube) is a type of medical catheter it really is inserted via your nose into your stomach. it's used for constrained intervals to supply materials which include food or medicines to your belly or to attract materials out.

Not unusual headaches encompass pain from setting and doing away with the tubes, sinusitis, or epistaxis. when placed incorrectly, tubes may also puncture your baby's esophageal tissue, make a hollow, and reason damage. setting the tube into the lung as opposed to the stomach may be lifestyle-threatening.

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the nurse is teaching the client with chronic venous insufficiency. which part of the body is particularly prone to development of stasis dermatitis?


The lower part of the leg is particularly prone to the development of stasis dermatitis.

Leg veins that are chronically insufficient prevent blood from returning to the heart. Your veins' valves normally ensure that blood travels toward your heart. Blood can, however, flow backward when these valves aren't functioning properly. Blood may accumulate (pool) in your legs as a result of this.

Edema, spider and varicose veins, and stasis dermatitis are all signs of chronic venous insufficiency. Long periods spent sitting or standing, as with some vocations, may be the cause of this. Regular muscular contractions in the legs are necessary for veins to help blood flow higher.

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the nurse is administering a medication to the client with a positive inotropic effect. which action of the medication does the nurse anticipate?


The expected effects of the drug, according to the nurse Increase the myocardial contraction's force.

What kind of medication is the nurse giving you?

The nurse understands that when a drug with a favorable inotropic effect is administered, the drug strengthens the contraction of the heart muscle. The heart rate goes up, not down. Both a depression of the central nervous system and a dilatation of the bronchial tree are absent.

Which vasodilator drug is applied to shock treatment?

To increase cardiac contractility, dopamine and dobutamine are the go-to medications, with dopamine being favoured in hypotensive patients. Vasodilators ease vascular smooth muscle tension and lower SVR, which improves forward flow and raises cardiac output.

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which action would the nurse take when caring for a client transferred to the postanesthesia care unit after a pyelolithotomy whose urinary output is 50 ml/h?


The nurse should record the output as an expected findings.

When there is a stone in the renal pelvis, a surgical procedure called a pyelolithotomy is performed. Indications for pyelolithotomy include severe morbid obesity and minimally branching staghorn stones in the renal pelvis with complex collecting systems. Patients who are undergoing major open abdominal or retroperitoneal surgical operations for other reasons may also benefit from pyelolithotomy; the most frequent concurrent procedure is open pyeloplasty for obstruction of the ureteropelvic junction (UPJ).

Pyelolithotomies can be carried out openly, laparoscopically, or robotically. Transperitoneal or retroperitoneal approaches are both possible. employ tracheal general anesthesia.

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a gravid patient is undergoing induction of labor with oxytocin. the nurse assesses the uterine contractions and notes that there are six contractions in 10 minutes, and the fhr is abnormal. which is the priority nursing action?


Discontinue oxytocin is the priority nursing action.

Labor induction, also known as inducing labor, is the process of causing the uterus to contract during pregnancy prior to the onset of labor for a vagin*l birth. A health care provider may recommend inducing labor for a variety of reasons, the most common of which is concern for the mother's or baby's health.

Uterine contractions are uterine smooth muscle contractions that occur during the menstrual cycle and labor. Uterine contractions occur throughout the menstrual cycle in the non-pregnant state as well as during pregnancy.

True contractions begin for many women around the 40th week of pregnancy. Premature labor is defined as real contractions that begin before the 37th week.

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a relative was admitted to the hospital and given doses of naltrexone for problems related to alcohol. how will this drug affect the man?


Naltrexone is a prescription medication that is used to treat alcohol dependence.

it is an opioid antagonist. That means that it blocks opioid receptors.

Naltrexone is injected into a muscle. This injection is usually given once a month

if a person decides to drink alcohol while being on naltrexone, they may still become intoxicated from alcohol.

the opiate receptor blocker does not prevent them from drinking , they may still become intoxicated from the alcohol. but come into role by the blocking the effects of endorphins on opioid receptors , patient does not enjoy and experience it in the same way.

unlike many other medications, naltrexone also has side effects the frequency of side effects is low.

The common side effects include gastrointestinal, including upset stomach, nausea and vomiting.

Things one need to keep in mind is that do not use opioid medication, heroin, or other street drugs when you are receiving naltrexone as it can be more harmful.

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high fever, headache, extreme fatigue, and a rash on the face that progresses to fluid- and pus-filled sores before crusting over and healing are signs and symptoms consistent with infection with: group of answer choices papillomavirus. polyomavirus. herpesvirus. adenovirus. poxvirus.


A rash on the face that progresses to fluid- and pus-filled sores before crusting over and healing are signs and symptoms that are consistent with infection with the poxvirus.

The Poxviridae family of viruses includes the poxvirus. Some serious and potentially fatal diseases can be brought on by members of this virus family. There are approximately 83 distinct types of pox viruses that belong to 22 distinct genera. Some include cowpox, smallpox, monkeypox, and others.

Small, pus-filled "poxes" on the body are how poxviruses are known to be. In particular, it appears that they occur most frequently on the face and hands. Within the second week of infection, the poxes begin to form, begin to fill with blood and pus, and then eventually burst, leaving painful ulcers behind. People may likewise feel other influenza-like side effects while contaminated with cowpox including fever, fatigue, and nausea.

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a nurse is caring for a 70-year-old client who is taking desmopressin (ddavp). the client has a history of cardiovascular disease. the nurse will prioritize the assessment of:


The examination of the client's electrolyte levels, who is 70 years old, uses desmopressin (ddavp), and has a record of cardiovascular disease, will be given priority by the nurse.

Desmopressin is a medication that when absorbed by the body reduces nocturnal urine volume and nocturnal voiding frequency in male patients with nocturnal polyuria which cause electrolyte deficiency.

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) analog nasal desmopressin (DDAVP) is a frequently given medication used to treat polyuria, nocturnal enuresis, and diabetes insipidus. Despite often being well absorbed, it can seriously disrupt electrolyte balance.

The cardiovascular system is influenced by magnesium, along with calcium and potassium. Deficits in magnesium and potassium are significant contributors to the development of ventricular arrhythmias. The stabilization of cellular potassium concentration depends on magnesium.

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the nurse is teaching a client with schizoaffective disorders (sad) about the client's prescribed medication therapy. the nurse determines that additional education is needed when the client states what?


the nurse is teaching a client with schizoaffective disorders (sad) about the client's prescribed medication therapy. the nurse determines that additional education is needed when the client states

"One day, I won't have to worry about taking any medication."

What is schizoaffective disorders (sad)?

A mental health condition known as schizoaffective disorder is characterised by a confluence of schizophrenia symptoms like hallucinations or delusions and mood disorder symptoms like depression or mania.

Both of the two forms of schizoaffective disorder, which share some symptoms with schizophrenia, are as follows:Bipolar type, which occasionally includes episodes of major depression and mania

Depressive type, which only includes severe episodes of depression.

symptoms include, Delusions are false, persistent beliefs that are held in spite of evidence to the contrary.

Impaired communication and speech, such as speaking incoherently or hearing voices, can cause hallucinations. Unusual or bizarre behaviour

Depression symptoms, such as feeling hopeless, depressed, or unworthy Periods of manic behavior, including out-of-character actions, an increase in energy over several days, and a decrease in the need for sleep a diminished capacity for work, study, and social interaction

Managing personal care issues, such as maintaining cleanliness and appearance.

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what is a characteristic indicator that an individual is in the latent phase of a chronic viral infection such as human immunodeficiency or herpes zoster viruses?


Very high viral load is a characteristic indicator that an individual is in the latent phase of a chronic viral infection such as human immunodeficiency or herpes zoster viruses.

What is herpes zoster virus?

Herpes zoster, widely known as shingles, is caused by the varicella-zoster virus (VZV), which also causes varicella (chickenpox).

The VZV causes the primary infection known as varicella. After the illness has subsided, the virus is still dormant in the dorsal root ganglia. Later in life, VZV can cause the maculopapular, painful rash known as herpes zoster.

The virus known as HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) lowers your immune system's defenses against common infections and disease.

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which action will the nurse take first when a patient presents to the emergency department with acute shortness of breath and possible asthma attack


In the event of an acute asthma exacerbation, it is imperative to monitor the respiratory and cardiovascular systems. In the treatment of a severe asthma attack, chest radiographs are rarely helpful.

How is an asthma attack treated in an emergency?

Albuterol is an example of a short-acting beta agonist. The medicines in your rescue (quick-acting) inhaler are the same. The medication can be inhaled deeply into your lungs by using a device known as a nebulizer, which turns it into a mist.

What transpires if you visit the ER for asthma?

Inhaled bronchodilators (like albuterol) and systemic corticosteroids are frequently used in the emergency room to treat asthma.

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the nurse performs a focused musculoskeletal assessment on a patient with a hip fracture. which should the nurse include for this type of assessment? (select all that apply.) muscle weakness range of motion joint tenderness gait pain


Pain, Joint tenderness, Range of motion, Muscle weakness.

What is a hip fracture?

A fracture in the top portion of the thighbone, just above the hip joint. A hip fracture may result in complications that are fatal. Because bones deteriorate with age and falling becomes more likely, people over 65 are most in danger. The inability to move after a fall and excruciating hip or groin pain are symptoms. Surgery and physical rehabilitation are almost usually necessary for hip fractures. A hip fracture can be avoided by maintaining bone density and avoiding falls.

For a patient with a hip fracture, a targeted musculoskeletal examination would look at their pain levels, joint sensitivity, range of motion, and muscle weakness. In addition, a lot of medical professionals perform an integrated assessment of the neuromuscular, musculoskeletal, and peripheral vascular systems. Although a full musculoskeletal assessment includes gait, this assessment is not currently anticipated.

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a family physician wants to prescribe some drugs for her patient who is on a fat free diet. what should she know about drugs biotransformation?


A family doctor wishes to recommend some medications for her patient who is trying to avoid surgical treatment for their disease and is following a low-fat diet.

What is biotransformation of a drug?

Biotransformation is the process by which substances or substrates (such as medications and other foreign chemicals) either change into a different chemical or are quickly eliminated from the body.

What are examples of biotransformation?

Examples of compounds that have been used since antiquity include the production of wine and beer. For a very long time, ethanol was converted to acetic during fermentation to generate vinegar. Microbes typically transform dairy precursors throughout the cheesemaking process.

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a nurse is assessing a client who has come to the office to find out if she is pregnant after a home pregnancy test was positive. the nurse will record the client's last menstrual period in which component of her medical record?


The nurse will record the client's last menstrual period in Chief concern/complaint component of her medical record.

The last mentrual period (LMP) refers to the primary day (onset of bleeding) of your last emission amount before falling pregnant. This info is usually accustomed calculate the expected date of delivery for your baby, that in humans is forty ± two weeks from your LMP.

You can do most pregnancy tests from the primary day of a lost period. If you do not recognize once your next amount is due, do the take a look at a minimum of twenty one days once you last had unprotected sex. Some terribly sensitive gestation tests will be used even before you miss a period.

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the absence of clinical indicators of cardiovascular disease and the presence of certain behavioral and health factor metrics is known as group of answer choices


The absence of clinical indicators of cardiovascular disease and the presence of certain behavioral and health factor metrics is known Ideal cardiovascular health

The American Heart Association (AHA) established the ideal cardiovascular health index (CVHI) as a general cardiovascular health indicator to evaluate the global general population's CVH.

Three CVD risk factors (blood pressure [BP], blood glucose, and total cholesterol), four health behaviour (smoking, physical activity, diet, and body mass index [BMI]), and one measure (CVHI) are based on optimum levels. The CVHI is a reliable, scalable, and comparatively easy index for evaluating cardiovascular health.

Few research has documented CVH utilizing SSA's CVHI score. There are few data on cardiovascular health measured with CVHI among ALHIV. In rural Uganda, Feinstein et al. evaluated the distribution of CVHI values and the disparity between those with and without HIV.

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a client is pregnant for the first time and is considered to be at high risk for preeclampsia. the care team should prioritize which intervention?


Blood pressure may need to be lowered with medication. Take these medications exactly as prescribed by your doctor. Women with preeclampsia frequently don't feel ill or exhibit any symptoms.

Avoid taking additional vitamins, calcium, aspirin, or other medications without first consulting your doctor. You must stay in the hospital if you have severe preeclampsia in order to have your blood pressure and other consequences monitored. Your doctor will routinely check on your baby's development and general health. The most common medications used to treat severe preeclampsia are blood pressure lowering anti-hypertensives.

Preeclampsia is defined as newly developing hypertension that appears after 20 weeks of pregnancy and is associated with either proteinuria or abnormalities of the uterus or maternal organs. Despite its high incidence, preemptive medicines only slightly lower a woman's risk of preeclampsia and the risk variables that have been found are insufficient to predict when it will start.

Preeclampsia symptoms and indicators can also include high blood pressure, such as proteinuria, or other indications of renal issues. decreased blood platelet levels (thrombocytopenia).

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the nurse is caring for a client with multiple episodes of diarrhea and suspected clostridium difficile (c. diff). which interventions should be included in the plan of care?


Options 2 and 4 are accurate; contact isolation will be required to stop the virus from spreading. Additionally, no electronic monitoring devices for vital signs should be utilized in the space.

For use in that patient room, the client will require a disposable stethoscope, blood pressure cuff, and thermometer.

1. Faulty: If a customer has prolonged diarrhea, precautions should be taken and a stool sample should be submitted. With suspected clostridium difficile, isolation should be implemented.

3. Fault: Hands must be washed with soap and water. There is not enough alcohol in alcohol-based foams to kill the c diff spores.

5. False: Because they aggravate the condition worse, medications to halt diarrhea will not be provided with clostridium difficile.

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The question is -

The nurse is caring for a client with multiple episodes of diarrhea and suspected Clostridium Difficile (C. diff). Which interventions should be included in the plan of care?

Select all that apply

1. Institute contact precautions only after confirmation of stool culture.

2. Instituting contact precautions for all who enter the client's room

3. Using alcohol-based foam for hand hygiene.

4. Dedicating equipment for use only in the client's room.

5. Requesting antidiarrheal medication for the client.

the nurse is providing discharge education on complications associated with intermittent self-catheterization. which possible complications should the nurse include in the teaching session? (select all that apply.)


The major complications associated with intermittent self-catheterization are :
1.Bladder infection, perforation or spasms.

2.Kidney infection.

3.Urethral scarring and strictures.

4.Urinary tract infection (UTI).

What is self-catheterization?
is a way to empty your bladder when you have difficulty urinating.

Self-catheterization, also called clean intermittent catheterization (CIC) or intermittent self -catheterization (ISC), involves inserting a thin, hollow tube called a catheter into the bladder through the urethra (the tube from which the urine exits your body).

Urethral bleeding is frequently seen in patients when first starting IC and can occur regularly in one-third of patients performing ISC on a long-term basis.

Urethral trauma or injury can occur in both men or women due to the use of a poorly lubricated catheter or forcible catheterization in a urethra, causing spasms.

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while providing care for a patient with a tracheostomy, which problem would the nurse investigate when the mechanical ventilator alarms display low tidal volume and lowpressure limit?


When the mechanical ventilator alarms show low tidal volume &the low-pressure limit indicates a tracheotomy cuff leak, the issue is one that the nurse would explore.

Either low-tidal volume or low-pressure limit may be shown on the alert when there is a tracheotomy cuff leak. A low-pressure limit is shown on the alert in the event of complete extubation. The alert indicates low-tidal volume if there is inadequate gas flow or a shift in the patient's respiration rate.

Auscultation across the lateral neck or suprasternal notch is used to detect a cuff leak. If a cuff leak is not immediately fixed, the insufficient ventilation it causes might be fatal. Inadequate cuff inflation is one of several causes of cuff leaks.

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a child is suffering from a fever and has reddish cheeks, arms, and thighs. the rash intensifies upon exposure to the sun. what is the likely infectious agent? group of answer choices hhv-6 poxvirus hhv-4 b-19 virus hhv-3


The child is probably infected with B19 virus.

When an infected person coughs or sneezes, the virus spreads through respiratory secretions such as saliva, sputum, or nasal mucus. Parvovirus B19 can also be transmitted via blood or blood products. A pregnant woman infected with parvovirus B19 can pass the virus to her unborn child.

Only humans are infected by Parvovirus B19. It is most commonly responsible for fifth disease, a mild rash illness that primarily affects children. However, depending on your age and overall health, it can cause a variety of signs and symptoms.

A mild nonspecific prodromal illness with fever, malaise, headache, myalgia, nausea, and rhinorrhea, typically beginning 5-7 days after initial infection, is typical of parvovirus B19 (B19V) infection.

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aversive pharmacologic interventions pair ingestion of a substance with a noxious physical reaction. this is based on


Aversive pharmacologic interventions pair ingestion of a substance with a noxious physical reaction. This is based on drug antabuse.

Aversive therapy, sometimes called aversive therapy or aversive conditioning, helps people abandon behaviors and habits by associating them with something unpleasant. Avoidance therapy is best known for treating people with addictive behaviors such as those found in alcohol use disorders.

Aversion therapy can take many forms, including:

application of unpleasant-tasting substances to the nails to discourage nail-biting; combining emetic use with alcohol experience; or pairing behaviors with mild to high-intensity electric shocks.

Antabuse blocks the enzymes involved in the processing of alcohol. When combined with alcohol in the body, disulfiram can cause very unpleasant side effects (rapid heartbeat, chest pain, nausea, dizziness, flushing, thirst, etc.). Antabuse is utilized in positive human beings with continual alcoholism.

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the client presents to the clinic with complaints of a painful rash under the left breast. the nurse observes a red papular rash and suspects the client is suffering from:


The client might develop herpes zoster. A viral infection called herpes zoster causes painful skin rashes or blister outbreaks. Shingles develop through three fundamental stages.

Herpes zoster, also known as shingles, is an uncomfortable viral infection that damages the skin and nerves. These include the early feelings of the skin, a rash breakout that is unpleasant, blistering, and leaking, and finally scabbing and healing.

Chills.Headache.being worn out.light sensitivity.upset stomachFever is one of the possible shingles symptoms.

A few days after the initial symptoms of Herpes zoster, there will be further indications and symptoms, such as:

Your skin in the affected area is red.a little patch of your skin that has become rashy.blisters that are fluid-filled, rip open, and then scab over.Pain ranging from mild to severe in the affected skin area.

The varicella-zoster virus, which also causes chickenpox, is to blame for its development. A ring of blisters or rashes in one part of your body is the most typical appearance of the rash in Herpes zoster.

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a client who is 12 hours postbirth is reporting perineal pain. after the assessment reveals no signs of an infection, which measure could the nurse offer the client?


A client who is 12 hours postbirth is reporting perineal pain. After the assessment reveals no signs of an infection,

An ice pack applied to the perineum- this measure could the nurse offer the client.

What is perineal pain?

One of the most frequent places to experience discomfort is the perineum because it is a significant site of muscle attachment. Any man or woman can have genital pain. The area between the genitalia and the anus is referred to as the perineal region. Organs, muscles, and nerves close by might produce pain in the perineum.

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A 65-year-old Client Who Has Been On Long-term Corticosteroid Therapy Is Admitted To The Hospital And (2024)
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