Special Senses Are Senses That Have A Specialized Organ Associated With Them. Do You Think We Could Have (2024)

Medicine College

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Answer 1

Answer:

Explanation:

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Answer 2

based on the logic of the statement we could have more senses if we could have more specialized organs and also it doesn t say if only one organ could be associated with more special senses:) we could find out more complex senses that helps us understand and integrate ourselves in the world by exploring the already known specialized organs .Maybe we have so many hidden senses that they blend so well we can t even find them:))

Maybe your question was yes or no. i think it needs more context to it to know how to answer to it.

Related Questions

Question 6. A LVN learns that a facility licensing law requires that a registered nurse always perform a specific task related to admission of new patients. The LVN understands that this means he or she

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The LVN understands that this means he or she may not perform the task, as the RN level of licensure is necessary to perform the task.

Sure, an RN role is a higher degree nurse than an LVN. RNs may supervise LVNs. At the same time as LVNs offer primary affected person care, RNs verify patient situations, record affected person's clinical signs, and histories, administer medication, perform and analyze diagnostic exams and create affected person care plans.

yes, an RN role is a better degree nurse than an LVN. RNs can also supervise LVNs. even as LVNs offer simple patient care, RNs determine affected person situations, file affected person scientific signs and histories, administer medicine, carry out and analyze diagnostic assessments and create affected person care plans.

one in every of the largest differences between LVNs and CNAs is what they may be liable for. essentially, while certified nursing assistants are usually chargeable for cleansing and assistant-degree responsibilities, certified vocational nurses partake in more scientific-associated and clerical obligations.

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Sally has attended birthing class at the local hospital, and has learned breathing and relaxation techniques to use during delivery. Sally is most likely preparing for a(n) Blank______ childbirth.

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Answer:

at home childbirth

Explanation:

why would she be learning if they tell you what to do in a hospital

A nurse manager is teaching the staff about professional negligence and malpractice. Which criteria that establishes malpractice will the nurse include

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That duty was breached.

Duty of care was owed to the patient.

Specifically, nursing malpractice or negligence refers to a nurse failing to adequately complete his or her tasks, ultimately resulting in harm to the patient.

What are Malpractices and professional negligence ?

A nurse's errors that are considered malpractice include administering the wrong medication, giving the wrong dosage, or giving the medication too early or too late.

A negligence claim may be in connection to variety of circ*mstances, including incorrect or delayed diagnosis, medication errors or administering the wrong treatment.

Anyone suing a health care provider, including a nurse, for malpractice must prove four elements in order to prevail: duty, breach, causation, and harm.

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please order the following choices to reflect the mechanism and development of an immediate (Type I) allergic reaction

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The steps of the mechanism and development of an immediate (Type I) allergic reaction are as follows:

Individual is exposed to as sensitizing dose of allergenCells produce IgE directed against the allergenIgE coats (sensitizes) mast cells and basophilsA provoking exposure to the allergen occurs and mast cells and basophils degranulate releasing histamine and other allergic mediatorsIndividual experiences allergy symptoms

What is type 1 allergic response?

Type 1 allergic reaction is known as immediate allergic response because it occurs within a short time of exposure to allergen.

It involves immunoglobulin E, IgE.

The steps of the mechanism and development of an immediate (Type I) allergic reaction are as follows:

Individual is exposed to as sensitizing dose of allergenCells produce IgE directed against the allergenIgE coats (sensitizes) mast cells and basophilsA provoking exposure to the allergen occurs and mast cells and basophils degranulate releasing histamine and other allergic mediatorsIndividual experiences allergy symptoms

In conclusion, Type 1 allergic reaction is an immediate allergic response.

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The nurse explains to the parents of a 2-day-old newborn that decreased life span of neonatal red blood cells has contributed to which complication

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The nurse explains to the parents of a 2-day-old newborn that decreased life span of neonatal red blood cells has contributed to hyperbilirubinemia.

Jaundice, a yellow colouring of the skin and eyes brought on by hyperbilirubinemia, is caused by an accumulation of bilirubin in the blood. Low bilirubin levels in newborns are typical, do not cause any problems, and resolve on their own within the first week of life.

On the other hand, some situations, such as prematurity, infection, or specific blood abnormalities, can cause a rapid buildup of bilirubin to a dangerous level.About 60% of term neonates and 80% of premature babies both experience hyperbilirubinemia, which causes jaundice.

Red blood cell lysis naturally produces bilirubin as a byproduct. Unconjugated bilirubin is transformed by the adult liver into a conjugated form that is eliminated.

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During a well child examination of a 2-year-old child, the primary care nurse practitioner palpates a unilateral, smooth, firm abdominal mass that extends to the flank and does not cross the midline. What is the next course of action that

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Refer the child to an oncologist immediately.

Who is an oncologist?

A physician who treats cancer and offers medical attention to someone who has been diagnosed with cancer is known as an oncologist. A cancer specialist is another name for an oncologist.

Unilateral, smooth, and firm abdominal mass indicates the signs of cancer in the patient. Therefore the child must be referred to an oncologist who is a cancer specialist.

They'll make a cancer diagnosis and suggest potential treatments. The advantages and drawbacks of each choice will be discussed. Additionally, they coordinate your post-treatment care and supervise your treatment.

I understand the question you are looking for is this:

During a well-child examination of a 2yearold child, the primary care pediatric nurse practitioner palpates a unilateral, smooth, firm abdominal mass that does not cross the midline. What is the next course of action?

a. Order a CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis

b. Perform urinalysis, CBC, and renal function tests

c. Reevaluate the mass in 1 to 2 weeks

d. Refer the child to an oncologist immediately

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A nurse is monitoring a female client with an epidural block. Which complication would be the most important for the nurse to monitor in the client

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Respiratory depression

Respiratory depression is a complication of epidural anesthesia and should be closely monitored in laboring clients. A failed block, accidental intrathecal block, and a postdural headache are all side effects of a spinal epidural block

What is Epidural anesthesia ?

Epidural anesthesia is often used during labor and delivery, and surgery in the pelvis and legs. Epidural and spinal anesthesia are often used when:

The procedure or labor is too painful without any pain medicine. The procedure is in the belly, legs, or feet

If you choose to have an epidural, a physician anesthesiologist will insert a needle and a tiny tube, called a catheter, in the lower part of your back.

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The risk of getting lung cancer at some point in time in one's life for men who have never smoked is about 13 in 1000. The risk for men who smoke is just over 13 times the risk for non-smokers. What is the approximate lifetime risk of getting lung cancer for men who smoke

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0.169 is the approximate lifetime risk of getting lung cancer for men who smoke.

In the United States, about 10 to 20% of lung cancer cases, or 20,000 to 40,000 lung cancers each year, occur in people who have never smoked or have smoked fewer than 100 cigarettes in their lifetime.

In this case, if we talk about the risk of smokers in terms of the risk of non-smokers, so the baseline risk is the risk for the non-smokers. So the baseline risk for lung cancer in men over an entire lifetime is the risk of lung cancer for men who have never smoked, over their lifetime, which is =0.013

The approximate lifetime risk of getting ling cancer, for male smokers, can be calculated as being 13 times the base risk= 0.169

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Describe why it is necessary to understand the difference between inpatient and outpatient coding guidelines.

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It is necessary to understand the difference between inpatient and outpatient coding guidelines because both patients have different needs and treatments.

What is the difference between inpatient and outpatient coding guidelines?

Outpatient coding is the detailed diagnosis report in which the patient is treated in one visit, while on the other hand, an inpatient coding is a system that is used to report a patient's diagnosis during his duration of stay. So understand the difference between inpatient is very necessary for the nursing staff in order to give the right treatment.

So we can conclude that it is necessary to understand the difference between inpatient and outpatient coding guidelines because both patients have different needs and treatments.

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A nurse at a long-term care facility is conducting a medication reconciliation for a man who has just moved into the facility. The man is currently taking clopidogrel. The nurse is most justified suspecting that this man has a history of:

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It is very reasonable for the nurse to believe that this individual taking clopidogrel, has a background of coronary artery disease.

What is the function of the clopidogrel drug?

It is an antiplatelet drug. It stops platelets, a kind of blood cell, from congregating and creating a potentially harmful blood clot. If one has a higher risk of developing blood clots, using clopidogrel can help.Clopidogrel has been shown to reduce the risk of myocardial infarction, stroke, and vascular mortality in people with atherosclerosis and in those who have had coronary stents implanted. ITP, CVA, and hemophilia are not suggested conditions to be treated with it.

When not to use clopidogrel?

For some folks, clopidogrel is not a good choice. In order to ensure that this medication is safe for you, let your doctor know if you:

possess an ulcer in the stomach or have had ulcers in the pasthave experienced brain bleeding (a brain hemorrhage)having a bleeding condition, such as hemophilia

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The average American adult needs ____ hours of sleep a night, and actually averages about ____ hours.

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The average American adult needs 9 hours of sleep period per night, and actually averages about 8 hours.

Why we need sleep ?

Sleep is crucial for survival.

During sleep the brain get enough time to sort, arrange and store information as well as replaces chemicals and solve the complex issues.

On an average the amount of sleep of a person depend on his age, for babies it is about 14 to 15 hours a day where as for people about 7 or 8 hours of sleep.

Five night sleep skipping leads to hallucination.

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A medical assistant assists a patient into a dorsal recumbent position in preparation for an exam. How is the patient positioned

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A patient is helped into a dorsal recumbent position so they may be examined by a medical assistant. The patient is positioned in this posture by lying face up, with the feet flat on the table and the legs bent.

The dorsal recumbent position is used for preparation for an exam like vagin*l examinations, using obstetric forceps, and other operations. The patient is positioned on their back with their lower limbs flexed and turned outward. It is one of the frequently utilized dorsal or supine postures in clinical practices. Additionally, the terms "supine posture" and "dorsal recumbent position" are sometimes interchanged. To be more specific though, there is little distinction between the two locations.

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Upon assessing the newborn's respirations, which finding would cause the nurse to notify the primary care provider

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A respiratory rate of 15 breaths per minute with nasal flaring and acrocyanosis.

What are some respiratory assessments that are normal in a newborn? The respiratory rate should be between 30 and 60 breaths per minute.Coughing and sneezing are normal in newborns.Apnea that lasts longer than 15 seconds but overall short period is normal findings in newborn.

What are some alarming respiratory assessments about a newborn?Nasal flaring is a sign of respiratory distress.Acrocyanosis which is bluish coloration of skin due to decreased amount of oxygen delivered to the peripheral part indicates respiratory distress.Chest retractions- skins around the breastbone and ribs pulls while breathing.Grunting sound with each breath.

Finding above conditions would cause the nurse to notify the primary care provider.

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Which drug classification is used for the treatment of cancer-induced spinal cord compression?

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Corticosteroids is the class of drugs used for the treatment of cancer-induced spinal cord compression.

The adrenal cortex of vertebrates produces a group of steroid hormones known as corticosteroids, as well as their synthetic counterparts.When a tumor invades the spinal cord or spinal column directly, a condition known as spinal cord compression results. The patient experiences neurological issues as a result. Edema and reduced blood congestion are two symptoms that are treated with corticosteroids. For the treatment of cancer-induced hypercalcemia, diuretics are used. In tumor lysis syndrome, xanthine oxidase inhibitors are utilized to encourage purine excretion. In order to treat cancer-induced hypercalcemia, bisphosphonates impede the reabsorption of calcium by the bones.

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A nurse is performing tracheostomy care and suctioning a client who has copious secretions. Which of the following methods should the nurse use to remove secretions

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The nurse used to remove secretions by Tracheostomy suctioning. Tracheostomy suctioning two to three times with a 60-second.

Thick mucus and secretions from the trachea and lower airway that you are unable to cough out are removed by tracheostomy suctioning. In the morning and just before you go to bed at night, suctioning is performed. Following any respiratory therapies, suctioning is also carried out.

When you have a moist cough that does not clear secretions, suctioning can be necessary. and find it difficult to breathe or feel as though you are not getting enough oxygen, and you are unable to efficiently clear secretions from your throat.
No discomfort should be felt during suctioning. Although you might feel out of breath and cough, these reactions are natural and shouldn't hurt.

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Dr. D delegates patient examinations, medical record documentation, and prescriptive authority to her PA to save time. Is this permissible

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Yes it is permissible for the PA to perform functions such as patient examinations, medical record documentation etc.

What is PA?

This is referred to a physician assistant who has been trained and supervised by the physician for some years.

This individual is therefore permissible to perform all the activities which are listed above.

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which of the following statements regarding interaction with the caregiver of a child or adult with special health care needs is correct

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The correct answer is communication with the patient's caregiver or family members is important because they are the most familiar with the patient's condition.

Caregiver

A caretaker is simply someone who attends to the needs or worries of a person who has temporary or permanent limits due to illness, accident, or disability. Family caregivers include people who look after members of their family of origin as well as those who look after their family of choice. As the primary source of crucial information about the patient, family caregivers play a key role in healthcare. The care recipient is the third leg of the stool, which also includes professional carers and family caregivers. The three legs are necessary for health care to be as effective as it needs to be.

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After a newborn is brought home, a father agrees to change at least two diapers a day. What kind of support is the father providing

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Instrumental support, father providing by agreeing to change at least two diapers a day of a newborn.

Instrumental support :

Instrumental support is when a person is given tangible support or help in physical ways. Support from others that is concrete is referred to as instrumental support. Instrumental support consists of the actions taken or materials provided by others to help you.

Offering help or assistance in a concrete and/or physical way, such giving money to someone who lost their job or cooking dinner for a bedridden person, is known as instrumental support. Support is essential on both an emotional and practical level.

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How many days a week should you incorporate weight training into your workout if you are at an advanced fitness level

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3-5 times per week for a total of 225 minutes , one should incorporate weight training ,if for an advanced level fitness.

Weights are used in strength training to grow, tone, and strengthen muscles while also providing resistance. Additionally, it can aid in weight loss and enhance general wellness. When starting off with strength training, one should concentrate on performing compound lifts, which are full-body workouts that work the entire body as opposed to just one specific body area.

Choosing the correct number of weights, starting gently and building gradually, is also crucial. It's best to start out slowly and progressively increase your workouts if you're a beginner. Instead of increasing the weights, advanced practitioners can enhance the intensity of their session by increasing the number of repetitions.

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A nurse is caring for a client who needs a stool test for guaiac. The nurse understands the purpose of the test is to check the stool for

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The nurse needs to check for Blood.

What should be included in the discharge teaching plan for a client who has lymphedema post right mastectomy

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Things that should be included in the discharge teaching plan for a client who has lymphedema post right mastectomy are:

1. Use a thimble when sewing.

2. Wear a heavy duty oven mitt for removing hot objects from the oven.

3. Long sleeves should be worn to prevent insect bites.

4. Shave underarms with an electric razor

What is lymphedema ?Lymphedema refers to tissue swelling caused by an accumulation of protein-rich fluid that's usually drained through the body's lymphatic system.Lymphedema can be caused by cancer treatments that remove or damage your lymph nodes. Severe cases of lymphedema can affect the ability to move the affected limb, increase the risks of skin infections and sepsis, and can lead to skin changes and breakdownTreatment may include compression bandages, massage, compression stockings, sequential pneumatic pumping, careful skin care and, rarely, surgery to remove swollen tissue or to create new drainage routes.

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Hesari et al. 2019. The effects of teaching methods of palliative care on life pattern of old women with chronic pain. Eur J Transl Myol, 29(4)

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Chronic pain is among the problems of old people and causes changes in their life patterns and processes.

Abstract:

Elderly persons with chronic pain can live active lives by learning palliative care. The purpose of this study was to ascertain the effects of palliative care education on the daily routines of older women with chronic pain. The current study was carried out on 30 older women with chronic pain in Iran in 2018 using a quasi-experimental design with pre-and post-tests. Before the intervention, a questionnaire to assess the older population's pattern of life with pain was completed. A group education program on palliative care was then used, and the questionnaire was then refilled immediately as well as one and three months afterward.

The mean changes before teaching palliative care were significantly different from those immediately following the educational program, as well as one and three months later (p = 0.0), respectively (p = 0.004). The stages immediately after the educational program, those occurring one month later, and those occurring three months later all differed significantly (p = 0.001, p = 0.002) from one another. Between the stage immediately following the educational program and those before the intervention and three months after it, there were statistically significant variations in the personal life patterns (p = 0.005, p = 0.000).

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Approximately how many grams of protein per day should a healthy 24-year-old male who weighs 182 pounds consume to meet the RDA for protein for an adult who is not an athlete? (Tip: One kilogram = 2.2 pounds.)

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Approximately 66 grams of protein per day should a healthy 24-year-old male who weighs 182 pounds consume to meet the RDA for protein for an adult.

Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA):

The average daily dietary nutrient intake level which is sufficient to fulfill the nutrient needs of nearly all (97-98 %) healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group.

Protein needs depend on a number of factors, such as:

weight and composition of the body (increased muscle mass)Level of physical activityEnergy and carbohydrates intake of an individualDisease or injury present (e.g. recovering from trauma or operation)Rate of growth for the person (e.g. greater during childhood )

Estimated protein requirements in accordance with US and Canadian Dietary Reference Intake recommendations:

46 grams of protein per day for women between the ages of 19 and 70. (based on 57.5 kg individual).56 grams of protein per day for men ages 19 to 70. (based on 70kg individual).

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Online Engagement with Surgical Treatments for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia: Are Minimally Invasive Surgical Therapies Outpacing the Gold Standard

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No minimally Invasive Surgical Therapies are not outpacing the Gold Standard.

Prostatic Hyperplasia

Benign prostatic hyperplasia, or BPH, is an enlargement of the prostate gland in males that is not a malignant condition. Additionally known as benign prostatic blockage or benign prostatic obstruction, benign prostatic hyperplasia has these names. As a man ages, the prostate grows in two distinct phases. Early in adolescence, the prostate doubles in size, which is the first sign. Nearly all of a man's life is spent in the second phase of growth, which starts at age 25. With the second growth phase comes benign prostatic hyperplasia quite frequently. The urethra is pressed up against and compressed as the prostate enlarges. Intensification of the bladder wall When the bladder eventually becomes weak and can no longer entirely empty, some pee may remain in the bladder.

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for patients post-acl reconstructive surgery, is rehabilitation with dry needling effective in comparison to standard rehabilitation in increasing rom

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Knee's stability and functionality can typically be recovered with a successful ACL restoration and targeted physical therapy.

What about ACL surgery?Anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction involves replacing the knee's anterior cruciate ligament with tissue grafts through surgery in order to recover function after an injury. Before reconstructing the knee using an arthroscopic treatment, the torn ligament can be either removed from the knee or maintained.Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction surgery is performed to replace a torn ACL, a significant knee ligament. Sports with abrupt pauses and changes in direction, such soccer, football, basketball, and volleyball, are the ones where ACL injuries most frequently happen.Most ACL reconstruction surgeries are completed in under two hours.It will be informed by your doctor how long the procedure will take. The time required for the full surgical procedure might depend on a number of factors, including: the kind of graft you're getting: an allograft or an autograft.

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A nurse is reviewing the medication administration records from the previous shift. Which of the following should indicate the need for an incident/variance report

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The option that indicate the need for an incident/variance report is d. An extended release capsule is mixed with applesauce.

What is incident/variance report?

The Variance Reporting Tool is known to be a mechanism that is often used in a unit-based clinical outcome report and it is one where there is need or its used to record the differences that is said to exist between what is known to be affected within the occurrence of illness and that which was said to be achieved.

Note that the aim of this reporting is made to be able to give the health care facility and the health care professionals the ability to be able to look into the problem and hinder the happenings of future incidents, events, irregular occurrences, and others.

Hence, based on the above, The option that indicate the need for an incident/variance report is d. An extended release capsule is mixed with applesauce.

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See full question below

A nurse is reviewing the medication administration records from the previous shift. Which of the following should indicate the need for an incident/variance report

A. An aminoglycoside IV antibiotic is administered over 1 hour

b. An ear drop administration is secured with a cotton ball to the outer ear for 5 min

c. An IM medication is injected to the vastus lateralis site of an adult

d. An extended release capsule is mixed with applesauce

Snacks provide about _____ of the average teenager’s total daily food energy intake.

Answers

Snacks provide about one -fourth of the average teenagers total daily food energy intake.Eating healthy food is an important part of our healthy life.

The food that provides most helpful to teens are whole-wheat, enriched , or fortified breads.Vitamins and minerals are are important intakes for teenagers in their young age.Calories needs vary depends on age and gender and according to to activity level of teenagers.

Boys require an average 3000 calories a day an girls requires 2500 calories a day not more not less . The body demands more calories during early adolescence .Teenagers should limit their intakes to 25 to 35 % of total calories every day in snacks.

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The volume of a cone with a radius of 7 cm is cubic centimeters. Which expression can be used to find h, the height of the cone

Answers

Height of cone is 9 cm

Complete Question

The volume of a cone with a radius of 7 cm is 147π cubic centimeters. Which expression can be used to find h, the height of the cone?

Given:

radius of cone = 7 cm^3

volume of cone = 147π

To Find:

height of cone

Solution:

This expression will be use to find volume of cone

147π = (1/3)π(7^2)(h)

π = 3.14

147 x 3 = h

49

h = 9 cm

So the height of Cone is 9 cm

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Drugs that block or change the effects of addictive substances are called _____ drugs.

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The antagonist drugs block or change the effects of the addictive drug.

The most suggested/prescribed antagonist drugs are disulfiram and naloxone. These two drugs are used for medication have different mechanisms of action in the body.

Together/combinedly they might be effective in treating individuals dually diagnosed with cocaine and alcohol dependence. Disulfiram is also known as Antabuse whereas, Naltrexone is also known as Vivitrol. Vivitrol can also be used to prevent relapse to opioid dependence.

Antabuse belongs to a class of drugs called Psychiatry Agents. The Antabuse medication is used in disorders by producing unpleasant side effects and sensitivity to alcohol.

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The physical activity health guidelines require metabolizing about _____ calories during moderate physical activity during most days of the week.

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The physical activity health guidelines require metabolizing about 150 to 400 calories during moderate physical activity on most days of the week.

The intake of calories in the food provides the energy to do work. A very low intake of calories may result in weight loss and too much of it can make you obese. Physical activities like exercise, cycling, and jogging are necessary to burn calories.

According to the physical activity health guidelines, adults must do moderate physical activity for at least 2hr a week. And 1 hr intense aerobic exercise a week to burn the calories.

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Special Senses Are Senses That Have A Specialized Organ Associated With Them. Do You Think We Could Have (2024)

FAQs

What are the special senses associated with? ›

Special senses include vision (for which the eyes are the specialized sense organs), hearing (ears), balance (ears), taste (tongue), and smell (nasal passages). General senses, in contrast, are all associated with the sense of touch. They lack special sense organs.

What are the special senses and why are they important for human perception? ›

Special senses have specialized sense organs that gather sensory information and change it into nerve impulses. Special senses include the vision for which the eyes are the specialized sense organs, hearing (ears), balance (ears), taste (tongue), and smell (nasal passages).

What are the special sense organs of the body? ›

What are the Sense Organs? Sense organs are the specialized organs composed of sensory neurons, which help us to perceive and respond to our surroundings. There are five sense organs – eyes, ears, nose, tongue, and skin.

Which of the following is a special sense organ that is associated with the sense of taste? ›

Taste buds are the true taste organ. They have numerous sensory cells that are, in turn, connected to many different nerve fibers. Each taste bud has between 10 and 50 sensory cells.

Why are sense organs important? ›

Sense organs (eyes, ears, nose, tongue, and skin) provide senses of sight, hearing, smell, taste, and touch, respectively, to aid the survival, development, learning, and adaptation of humans and other animals (including fish).

What are the most important special senses? ›

Findings. This cross-sectional online survey found that sight is the most valued sense, followed by hearing.

How are senses important to us? ›

We use our senses to gather and respond to information about our environment, which aids our survival. Each sense provides different information which is combined and interpreted by our brain. Which sense is dominant varies between different animals, as well as which is the most sensitive.

How do senses impact behavior? ›

The brain processes information from our senses. Based on memories of prior experiences, we determine if we feel calm, tired, alert, anxious, scared, happy, sleepy, distressed, content, angry, furious, loving, disoriented, or relaxed, to name a few developed perceptions.

How can our senses keep us safe? ›

How Your Senses Keep You Safe. Visual cues and changes to your surroundings are detected through the eyes and interpreted by the brain, prompting action to recognise dangers. There is a strong reliance on vision to keep safe. Sounds are used to alert you of potential hazards.

Which sense organ helps us to feel? ›

The five senses of humans are perceived through the use of sensory organs. These sensory organs include eyes for sight, ears for sound, nose for smell, tongue and nose for taste, and skin for touch.

Why are the five senses important in learning? ›

Stimulating your senses while studying can improve retention. Why? Because the more you use your sense of taste, hearing, smell, sight, and touch while hitting the books, the more you're stimulating various parts of your brain at the same time.

What has specialized sense organs? ›

8.7 Summary. The human body has two major types of senses: special senses and general senses. Special senses have specialized sense organs and include vision (eyes), hearing (ears), balance (ears), taste (tongue), and smell (nasal passages). General senses are all associated with touch and lack special sense organs.

Why are they called special senses? ›

Background. In anatomy, special senses are the senses that have organs specifically devoted to them such as vision, gustation, olfaction, audition, and equilibrioception. These senses have specialized organs that detect and process stimuli and send signals to the brain which lead to the perception of that stimulus.

What do the special sense organs include _______? ›

In medicine and anatomy, the special senses are the senses that have specialized organs devoted to them: vision (the eye) hearing and balance (the ear, which includes the auditory system and vestibular system) smell (the nose)

What are the 5 senses connected to? ›

The five senses are sight, sound or hearing, smell, taste, and touch. The five senses are associated with a sense organ, each of which is responsible for sensing the environment and sending that information to the brain where it is interpreted as a sense.

What are the 11 human senses? ›

Broadly, sensations fall into two categories: General and special senses. General senses include touch, pain, temperature, proprioception, vibration, and pressure. Special senses include vision, hearing, taste, and smell.

What are the anatomical concepts associated with the special senses? ›

In anatomy, special senses are the senses that have organs specifically devoted to them such as vision, gustation, olfaction, audition, and equilibrioception. These senses have specialized organs that detect and process stimuli and send signals to the brain which lead to the perception of that stimulus.

What are somatic senses? ›

The somatic sensory system has two major components: a subsystem for the detection of mechanical stimuli (e.g., light touch, vibration, pressure, and cutaneous tension), and a subsystem for the detection of painful stimuli and temperature.

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